Let's take a stroll through insanity…
Most of us have heard of Angels at some point in our lives, to some people they are the little cute ornaments we put on top of the family Christmas tree, to others they are divine beings mentioned in the biblical texts sent from heaven with wings and white dresses to look after good Christians that need help, but how many of you have heard of Angels that want sex?
GENESIS CH 6:1-4 (KJV)
1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,
2 That the sons of God (bene Elohim – הָֽאֱלֹהִים֙ בְּנֵ֤י) saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
3 And the Lord said, my spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
4 There were GIANTS (Nephilim – הַנְּפִלִ֞ים) in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men (הַגִּבֹּרִ֛ים), which were of old, men of renown.
So is the bible stating that before the days of Noah, there lived on this planet, GIANT non-human beings called Nephilim, which impregnated some of the prettier females of the increasing human race, and then these human women gave birth to hybrid children who were bigger or stronger than normal human beings?
So that there is no mistaking the term “sons of God” for being just a pious title bestowed upon some human priests or group of holy people, let me draw your attention to the fact that some manuscripts of the Septuagint have footnotes advising the reader to understand the term “sons of God” as to mean “Angels”. In the Codex Alexandrinus we see that the words “sons of God” has also been omitted and replaced by the word “Angels”. The Codex Vaticanus also originally contained the word “angels”.
So why did the earlier versions of the bible use the word Angels? and why did later church authorities change the English translation to “Sons of God?”. If you read the same verse with the word Angels instead of Sons of God you instantly see the ramifications which the later catholic bibles were trying to avoid…
1 And after that men began to be multiplied upon the earth, and daughters were born to them.
2 The Angels seeing the daughters of men, that they were fair, took themselves wives of all which they chose.
3 And God said: My spirit shall not remain in man forever, because he is flesh, and his days shall be a hundred and twenty years.
4 Now giants were upon the earth in those days. For after the Angels went in to the daughters of men and they brought forth children, these are the mighty men of old, men of renown.
I then thought to ask whether the Hebrew words Bene Elohim / Bnei HaElohim occur anywhere else in the old testament? and if they do, what was their intended contextual meaning in these other instances? Were the Hebrew words Bene Elohim describing a group of Angels or a group of Devout Humans?
I found that apart from appearing twice in Genesis 6:2, 6:4, the Hebrew words Bene Elohim also appear three times in the book of Job, 1:6, 2:1, 38:7. In my opinion the 3 verses in the book of Job definitely refer to Angelic Beings.
In this verse from Job 2:1 we can clearly see that the Hebrew words Bene Elohim are being used to describe the sons of god in an Angelic context, the fallen angel satan is also present!
Job 2:1 (King James Bible)
1 Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them to present himself before the LORD.
…when we read the Hebrew version of Job 2:1 we see the Hebrew words Bene Elohim written exactly the same as they appear in Genesis 6:4…
Job 2:1 (Orthodox Jewish Bible)
1 Again there was a day when the Bene Elohim came to present themselves before Hashem, and Hasatan came also among them to present himself before Hashem.
So, yes the Hebrew term Bene Elohim as used twice in the book of Genesis, is used again in the old testament in the book of Job, where it is used three times to describe a group of Angels. So Genesis 6:4 is basically saying that a group of Angels had physical sex with a selection of human women who bore them special children.
We are raised to believe Angels are non-physical spiritual entities, but Genesis 6 implies that they were / are physical beings and more than that, their DNA must have been compatible with our human DNA, because how else could their sexual exploits have resulted in them fathering children with human women?
If this is the correct way to understand the meaning of this biblical verse, I am extremely baffled as to why something as important as Angels breeding with humans is only mentioned ONCE in a book as large as the Old Testament?
If God’s angels did indeed go native with a few good looking earth woman, then surely there should be more than just 4 little lines tucked away in the book of Genesis to highlight this amazing event?
Has someone in our past attempted to hide this story? Are there any other ancient texts that relate a similar story of heavenly visitors having sex with humans?
Well some of you may be aware of the once lost “Book of Enoch”, which seems to expand the story hinted at in Genesis. The book of Enoch was reintroduced to Europe from Ethiopian sources by James Bruce of Kinnaird in approx 1770, and then its contents were reconfirmed later in 1947 when…
“…the remnants of several almost complete copies of The Book of Enoch, written in Aramaic, were found among the Dead Sea Scrolls. All but one of the five major components of the Ethiopic anthology were also found among the dead sea scrolls. But even more intriguing is the fact that additional, previously unknown texts about Enoch were also discovered at Qumran. The most important of these is The Book of Giants.”
The book of Enoch tells of a group of 200 Watchers or Angels who come down to planet earth to primarily teach and direct the human race, but they end up shagging their choice of the female population, and getting in hot water with the leader of the Angels because of their unscheduled sexual exploits which result in hybrid offspring.
So this little stroll through insanity leads me to ask, “Is there the slightest possibility that the Book of Enoch is referring to the same sexually active Angels mentioned in Genesis 6?”
I always try to avoid mixing stories from the old Hebrew testament with stories from the new Greek testament, but I would just like to point out a little thought provoking similarity between the two; The mother of the prophet Jesus was also visited by an Angel, and this Angel told her she would soon bear a special child… is there any possibility that this `Angel’ was involved in the physical impregnation of Mary, whether it be medically or sexually? Wow, could the Angel be the father of the special child?